Last
year for the Feast of the Nativity, I gave a lecture about one of the central
claims of the Christian faith: the Virgin Birth of Christ. This was all well
until I used in passing the phrase "ever-virgin" with reference to the Lord's
Mother. Someone asked, "Do you actually mean that Mary remained a virgin after Jesus' birth?" I said yes, that is
what the Orthodox Church teaches. The look of surprised bemusement on the
audience's faces said it all. The miracle of the Virgin Birth is one thing, but
lifelong abstinence from sexuality? That's impossible!
The lives of monastics and ascetics around the world and
throughout history attest to the fact that of course it is possible. Sexual purity is only one of many challenges set for
these spiritual warriors, and for many, perhaps most of them, it is not the
greatest. The Orthodox have no difficulty, then, considering the ever-virginity
of Mary a nonnegotiable fact and its alternative unthinkable. But why should
this necessarily be so? Why insist on the idea that Mary (who was married,
after all) did not go on to have a "normal" married life?
A
Consistent and Unbroken Tradition
The question could be inverted. Why not
believe in her ever-virginity? The Eastern Church has witnessed to the
perpetual virginity of the Theotokos steadfastly for two thousand years and
shows no sign of tiring. In the West, the idea was largely undisputed until
late in the Reformation; even Luther and Calvin accepted the tradition.
Indeed, to suggest (a) that the tradition about her perpetual virginity could
have been introduced after apostolic times, (b) that this tradition would have
gone little noticed by a Church in the throes of questioning everything about
what it believed in the first millennium, (c) that such a novel tradition
should be considered inconsequential enough to pass without discussion before
it became universally proclaimed, and (d) that such a tradition should have no
discernible literary or geographical origin and yet be universally accepted
from very early in the Church's history, is to form a very unlikely hypothesis.
Set
Apart to God
To argue against Mary's perpetual virginity is to suggest something
else that is greatly implausible, not to say unthinkable: that neither Mary nor
her protector, Joseph, would have deemed it inappropriate to have sexual
relations after the birth of God in the flesh. Leaving aside for a moment the
complete uniqueness of the Incarnation of the Second Person of the Trinity,
recall that it was the practice for devout Jews in the ancient world to refrain
from sexual activity following any great
manifestation of the Holy Spirit.
An early first-century popular rabbinical tradition (first recorded by Philo,
20 BC-AD 50) notes that Moses "separated himself" from his wife Zipporah when
he returned from his encounter with God in the burning bush. Another rabbinical
tradition, concerning the choosing of the elders of Israel in Numbers 7, relates that
after God had worked among them, one man exclaimed, "Woe to the wives of these
men!" I cannot imagine that the fellow to the left of him replied, "What do you
mean, Joe?" The meaning of the statement would have been immediately apparent.
Whether these stories relate actual events or not, they express the popular
piety in Israel
at the time of the birth of Christ. That culture understood virginity and
abstinence not as a mere rejection of something enjoyable-to what end?-but as
something naturally taken up by one whose life has been consecrated by the
Lord's Spirit to be a vessel of salvation to His people. The intervening
centuries of social, religious, and philosophical conditioning have made us
suspicious of virginity and chastity in a way that no one in the Lord's time
would have been.
Mary became the vessel for the Lord of Glory Himself, and bore in the flesh Him
whom heaven and earth cannot contain. Would this not have been grounds to
consider her life, including her body, as consecrated to God and God alone? Or
it more plausible that she would shrug it all off and get on with keeping house
in the usual fashion? Consider that the poetically parallel incident of the
Lord's entry through the east gate of the Temple
(in Ezekiel 43-44) prompts the call: "This gate shall be shut; it shall not be
opened, and no one shall enter by it, for the Lord
God of Israel
has entered by it; therefore it shall be shut" (44:2).
And then there is Joseph's character to consider. Surely his wife's miraculous
conception and birthgiving (confirmed by the angel in dream-visions) and the
sight of God incarnate in the face of the child Christ would have been enough
to convince him that his marriage was set apart from the norm. Within Mary's
very body had dwelt the second Person of the Trinity. If touching the ark of
the covenant had cost Uzzah his life, and if even the scrolls containing the
Law, the Psalms, and the Prophets were venerated, certainly Joseph, man of God
that he was, would neither have dared nor desired to approach Mary, the chosen
of Israel,
the throne of God, to request his "conjugal rights"!
The
Lord's "Brothers"
There are several questions based on Scripture that are often raised by
those skeptical about the doctrine of ever-virginity. The first of these
involves the passages which state explicitly that the Lord had "brothers."
There are nine such passages: Matthew 12:46-47 and 13:55-56; Mark 3:31-32 and
6:3; Luke 8:19-20; John 2:12 and 7:3-5; Acts 1:14; and 1 Corinthians 9:5.
The Greek word used in all these passages and generally translated "brother" is
adelphos.
The Septuagint-the ancient Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures used by
the Apostles (abbreviated LXX)-includes specific words for "cousin," notably adelphinos and anepsios, but they are rarely used. The less specific word adelphos, which can mean "brother,"
"cousin," "kinsman," "fellow believer," or "fellow countryman," is used
consistently throughout the LXX, even when cousin or kinsman is clearly the
relation described (such as in Genesis 14:14, 16; 29:12; Leviticus 25:49;
Jeremiah 32:8, 9, 12; Tobit 7:2; etc.). Lot,
for instance, who was the nephew of Abraham (cf. Genesis 11:27-31), is called
his brother in Genesis 13:8 and 11:14-16. The point is that the commonly used
Greek word for a male relative, adelphos,
can be translated "cousin" or "brother"
if no specific family relation is indicated.
Is there anywhere a clear statement in the Scriptures establishing Jesus'
brothers as literally the children of Mary? In fact, there is not. Nowhere is Mary explicitly stated to be
the mother of Jesus' brothers. The formula for speaking of the Lord's family is
"His mother and His brothers." In Mark the possessive, anavtou-"of Him," is inserted before both "His mother" and "His brothers," making a clear distinction.
In Acts 1:14, the separation is more pronounced: "Mary the mother of Jesus, and
His brothers." Some manuscripts use the conjunctive syn-"along with, in company with," so that the text reads "Mary the
mother of Jesus, along with His brothers." In any case, Mary is never
identified as the mother of Jesus' brothers (nor they as her children), but
only as the Mother of Jesus.
The
Meaning of "Until"
Another objection to the idea of Mary's perpetual virginity is that the
Scriptures use the word "until" or "till" in Matthew 1:25:
". . . and [Joseph] did not know her till she had brought forth her firstborn
Son."
Whereas in English the word "until" necessarily
indicates change after the fact, in the ancient languages of the Bible this is
simply not the case. For instance, if we read Deuteronomy 34:6, 2 Samuel 6:23,
Psalm 72:7 and 110:1 (as interpreted by Jesus in Matthew 22:42-46), Matthew
11:23 and 28:20, Romans 8:22, and 1 Timothy 4:13, to reference just a few
examples, we will see that in none of these passages does the word "until" indicate a necessary change. If it did,
then apparently among other things we would be meant to understand that Jesus
will at some point stop sitting at the right hand of the Father, and that on
some unhappy date in the future He intends to abandon the Church!
The use of "until" in Matthew 1:25,
then, is purely to indicate that Christ was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and
the Virgin Mary, not conceived by Joseph and Mary, since they did not "know"
each other "until" the birth. In this context "until" is really synonymous with
"before." If on the contrary it were meant in its full contemporary English
sense-that is, if it really meant that Joseph and Mary's chaste relationship
changed after the birth-then the stylistics present another big problem: the
reader would have to believe that Matthew was actually inviting contemplation of the couple's later sexual
activity. This is doubtful to say the least.
The Meaning of
"Firstborn"
Another
objection might be based on the word "firstborn," prototokos in Greek. The problem again is that the Greek word is
not identical in semantic range to the English rendering. The English
"firstborn" usually (though, it must
be said, not always) implies the existence of subsequent children, but with prototokos there is no such implication.
In Hebrews 1:6, for example, the use of prototokos in reference
to the Incarnation of the Word of God cannot mean that there is a "second-born"
Word of God!
Nowhere is the term used to express merely the order of birth; instead in
Romans 8:29, Colossians 1:15, 18, Hebrews 11:28 and 12:23, and Revelation 1:5,
the title is applied to Jesus as the privileged and legal Heir of the Kingdom,
attesting that He is truly "first in all things." To the contemporary ear, a better
translation might indeed be "heir," which is similarly silent on the subject of
other children and carries the same legal and poetic force that is intended by
"firstborn."
"Woman,
Behold Thy Son"
Also, consider the moving passage from St. John's Gospel in which our
Lord commits His Mother into the care of St. John as He dies on the Cross. Why
would He do so if she had other children to look after her? Jewish custom
dictated that the care of a mother would fall to the second born if the
firstborn died, and if the widow had no other child she would be left to take
care of herself. Since she is without other children, her Son gives her into
the care of the beloved disciple.
The
Women at the Cross and the Identity of the Lord's Brothers
Who exactly are the "brothers of the Lord" if not fellow sons of Mary
His mother? (Here, I am gratefully indebted to Fr. Lawrence Farley's article,
"The Women at the Cross." A close study of the women at the Cross in Matthew
27:55, 56 yields a plausible answer. These women were said to be:
(1) Mary Magdalene;
(2) the mother of the sons of Zebedee;
(3) Mary the Mother of James and Joseph.
In the parallel passage in Mark 15:40, 41, the women are said to be:
(1) Mary Magdalene;
(2) Salome;
(3) Mary the mother of James the Less and of Joses.
In John 19:25, the women are listed as:
(1) Mary Magdalene;
(2) Christ's Mother;
(3) His mother's sister, Mary wife of Clopas.
For our purposes we should focus on the woman who is referred to by St. Matthew
as "Mary the mother of James and Joseph," by St. Mark as "Mary the mother of
James the Less and of Joses [a variant of Joseph]," and by St. John in his list as "His mother's sister,
Mary wife of Clopas."
Note that in Matthew the names "James and Joseph" were mentioned before.
Indeed, the way Matthew mentions "Mary mother of James and Joseph" in 27:55, 56
presupposes that he has already introduced these "James and Joseph"-as indeed
he has. In Matthew 13:55, we read that our Lord's "brothers" are "James and
Joseph and Simon and Judas." Similarly, in St. Mark's Gospel, "James and Joses"
are mentioned as if we already know who "James and Joses" are, which in fact we
do from Mark 6:3, where Christ's "brothers" are listed as "James and Joses and
Judas and Simon."
It seems beyond reasonable dispute that the Mary at the Cross in St. Matthew
and St. Mark is the mother of our Lord's "brothers," "James and Joses." Also,
it is inconceivable that Matthew and Mark would refer to the Lord's Mother at
the foot of the Cross as the mother of James and Joseph, but not mention that
she is the Mother of Jesus as well!
If it is the case, as the Scriptures suggest, that Mary wife of Clopas is the
same as the mother of James and Joseph, we have the following conclusion: the
Theotokos had a "sister," married to Clopas, who was the mother of James and
Joseph, our Lord's "brothers." Here, the question ought to immediately arise
concerning the Theotokos' relationship to this Mary: What kind of "sister" is
she?
Hegisippus, a Jewish Christian historian who, according to Eusebius, "belonged
to the first generation after the apostles" and who interviewed many Christians
from that apostolic community for his history, relates that Clopas was the
brother of St. Joseph, foster-father of Christ (apud. Eusb. Eccl. H. iv:22). If
this is so (and Hegisippus is generally acknowledged as fully reliable), then
"Mary wife of Clopas" was the Virgin Mary's "sister" in that she was her
sister-in-law.
The puzzle therefore fits together. St.
Joseph married the Virgin Theotokos, who gave birth to
Christ, her only Child, preserving her virginity and having no other children. St. Joseph's brother,
Clopas, also married a woman named Mary, who had the children James and Joseph
(along with Judas and Simon, and daughters also). These children were our
Lord's "brothers" (using the terminology of Israel, which as we have seen made
no distinction between brothers and cousins but referred to all as "brothers").
St. Matthew and St. Mark, focusing on our Lord's family (Matthew 13:53ff and
Mark 6:1ff), naturally refer to Clopas' wife Mary as "the mother of James and
Joseph (Joses)." St. John,
on the other hand, focuses on our Lord's Mother (cf. John 2:1ff) and just as
naturally refers to this same woman as "His mother's sister, Mary wife of
Clopas." But it is apparent that it is one and the same woman being referred to
by all. This reconstruction is the best that can be made (though others exist,
they all contain serious weaknesses) given both the Scriptural and historical
evidence.
Why
Mary's Ever-Virginity Is Important
Some
would say that even if it can be proved, Mary's ever-virginity is not essential
to the proclamation of the Gospel, and this is true on a certain level. In its
essence, the Orthodox Church proclaims the Gospel of Jesus Christ. This is our
message, our reason for being, the very life of our life. Teaching about Mary
is really meant for the initiates, those who have already accepted the Gospel
and have committed themselves to Christ and to service in His Church.
This is so because what Mary teaches us about the Incarnation of the Word of
God requires that we first accept the Incarnation. Once we do, then her
virginity not only after birthgiving, but also before-and indeed the character
of her entire life-become in themselves a wellspring of teaching about life in
Christ and the glory of God. Indeed, she said as much herself. By stating that
"all generations shall call me blessed," Mary was not vainly contemplating her
own uniqueness, but proclaiming the wonder that her life was to manifest God's
glorious victory in His Christ for all time.
Mary was not a happenstance vessel of God; rather her role in our salvation was
prepared from the beginning of the ages. The entire history of Israel-the
patriarchs, the psalms, the prophets, the giving of the commandments-converged
in the young woman who would answer the way all Israel should always have
answered, and as we all are expected to answer now: "Behold the handmaiden of
the Lord."
But her purpose in salvation history did not end there. She was not cast aside
as an article that is no longer useful. Instead her whole being and life would
continue to point us without distraction to her Son. At the wedding of Cana in Galilee we hear her words: "Whatever He says to you, do
it" (John 2:5). At her Son's crucifixion, she stands fast at the foot of the
Cross, this time pointing not with words but by her refusal to leave His side
even in the face of what seemed an impossible nightmare. As we undertake to
imitate this faithfulness in pointing always to God, we will begin to see in the
same measure that Mary's perpetual virginity is in fact her ever-ministry, the
ideal example for our own ministry.
It is important to recover the proper veneration of Mary which the apostolic
Church has always held, not because Mary is the great exception but, as one
Orthodox theologian has said, because she is the great example. This veneration
is beautifully expressed in an Orthodox hymn that poetically recounts Gabriel's
first encounter with Mary, who was about to become the Ark of the New Covenant,
the throne of God, the flesh which gave flesh to the Word of God:
Awed by the beauty of your virginity
and the exceeding radiance of your purity,
Gabriel stood amazed, and cried to you, O Mother of God:
"What praise may I offer you
that is worthy of your beauty?
By what name shall I call you?
I am lost and bewildered,
but I shall greet you as I was commanded:
Hail, O full of grace."
Fr. John Hainsworth is pastor of
All Saints of Alaska Orthodox Mission of Victoria, British Columbia. Fr. John converted to Orthodoxy
in 1992. He graduated from St. Vladimir's Seminary in 2002 with a Master's
degree in Divinity.
This article originally appeared in AGAIN Vol. 28 No.3, Fall 2006. It is
reproduced here courtesy of www.conciliarpress.com.
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