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Pres. Jeannie discusses the historical context in which the book of Revelation was written. The patristic and Orthodox tradition is to always read a book within its historical context - listen along to learn who wrote Revelation and the how sufferings of Christians within the Roman Empire compelled its writing.
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In my research, St. Irenaenus states that the prophecy appeared, "toward the end of Domitian's reign," which puts it at about A.D. 96 or between A.D. 91–95 as Pres. Jeannie intimates. Most other sources seem to be merely quoting Irenaenus.
It seems the popular conception is that an immense time-period when Christians were slaughtered occurred under the rule of Domitian. After all, he was Caesar, emperor (even demanded godly recognition), and a noted barbarous and abominable tyrant.
However, there doesn't seem to be any hard evidence supporting the Christian slaughter under his rule. Until the fifth century, there is no mention in any historian of a supposedly widespread persecution of Christians by his government. He banished some Christians, but even they were ultimately recalled. I understand that while true, a limited selective purge of some Christians occurred, it's not certain any Christians were put to death in Domitian's reign. Contrast that with the outright massacre of Christians under Nero. St. Clement and Tacitus (two early and entirely independent witnesses) reference Nero's reign when touting "immense multitudes."
It seems interesting to me that commentators are led by Irenaenus (who never mentions a persecution), to prefer Domitianic context for Revelations.
Doesn't the Book prophesy Jerusalem's destruction by the Romans (also driving home the importance as to whom (first century Christians) the letter was written), it seems to me that this alone, places the authorship before September of A.D. 70 (when the destruction of Jerusalem occurred).